INTRODUCTION TO INTERNETWORKING

CCNA Exploration 4.0-Cisco Networking Academy

Exploration RP&C, Chapter 2 Introductory VOD

CCNA 4 Module 7 Exploration 4.0 (Set II)

1. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?

The DHCP server service is not enabled.

The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.

The DHCP pool for the DCHP is not defined.


The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.

***The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.

All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.


2. Refer to the exhibit. On the basis of the configuration shown, how should the pool of the excluded addresses be assigned to key hosts on the network, such as router interface, printer, and server?

***The addresses are statistically assigned by the network administrator.

The DHCP server dynamically assigns the addresses.

The addresses must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for static assignment.

The address must be listed under the DHCP pool of addresses before they are available for dynamic assignment.


3. Refer to the exhibit. According to the output, how many addresses have been successfully assigned by this DHCP server?

1

2

6

7

***8

9


4. What are two benefits of NAT? (Choose two.)

***It saves public IP addresses.

***It added a degree pf privacy and security to a network.

It increases routing performance.

It makes troubleshooting routing issues easier.

It makes tunneling with IPsec less complicated.


5. What is true regarding the differences between NAT and PAT?

PAT uses the word "overload" at the end of the access-list statement to share a single registered address.

Static NAT allows an unregistered address to map to multiple registered addresses.

Dynamic NAT allows hosts to receive the same global address each time external access is required.

***PAT uses unique source port numbers to distinguish between translations.


6. What type of NAT should a network administrator use to ensure that a web server on the inside network is always available to the outside network?

NAT overload

**Static NAT

Dynamic NAT

PAT



7. Refer to the exhibit. Which address or addresses represent the inside global address?

101.1.2

192.168.0.100

***209.165.20.25

any address in the 10.1.1.0 network


8. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the configuration are true? (Choose two.)
3

***Traffic from the 10.1.1.0 network will be translated.

Traffic from the 209.165.200.0 network will be translated.

***Permitted traffic gets translated to a single inside global IP address.

A pool of inside global IP addresses from the 10.1.1.0 network will be used for translation.

External users from the 209.165.200.0 network can reach private addresses on the 10.1.1.0 and 10.1.2.0 network.


9. Refer to the exhibit. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco broadband router?

***defines which addresses can be translated

defines which addresses are allowed into the router

defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool

defines which addresses are allowed out of the router



10. A technician has been told by a supervisor to always clear any dynamic translations before attempting to troubleshoot a failed NAT connection. Why has the supervisor issued these instructions?

The supervisor wants to clear any confidential information that may be seen by the technician

***Because entries can be cached for long periods of time, the supervisor wants to prevent decisions being made based on old data.

The translation table may be full is unable to make new translations until space is available.

Clearing the translations causes the starting configuration to be reread and may correct translation problems that have occurred.



11. Refer to the exhibit. Traffic exiting R1 is failing translation. What part of the configuration is most likely incorrect?

4

ip nat pool statement

***access-list statement

ip nat inside is on the wrong interface

interface so/0/2 should be a private IP address


12. Refer to the exhibit. A technician used SDM to enter the NAT configuration for a Cisco router. Which statement correctly describes the result of the configuration?

A user on the inside sees web traffic coming from 192.168.1.3 using port 8080.

5

The address 172.16.1 is translated into an address from the pool beginning with 192.168.1.3.

***A user on the outside network sees a request addressed from 192.168.1.3 using port 80.

A user on the outside must address traffc to port 8080 to reach the address 172.16.1.1.



13. Refer to the exhibit. How many IPv6 broad6 broadcast domains exists in this topology?

***0
1

2

3

4


14. A network administrator wants to connect two IPv6 islands. The easiest way is through a public network that uses only IPv4 equipment. What simple solution solves the problem?

Replace the devices on the public network with devices tht support IPv6.

Configuration RIPng on the border router of each IPv6 island.

Configuration the routers to take advantage of dual-stack technology.

***use tunneling to encapsulate the IPv6 traffic in the IPv4 protocol.



15. After activating IPv6 routing on a Cisco router and programming IPv6 addresses on multiple interfaces, what is the remaining step to activate RIPng?

***Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable IPng RIP.
Enter the IPv6 rip name command and then use network statements to activate RIPng on the interfaces.

Enter the router rip command, and then activate RIPng using the version command.

RIPng then automatically runs on all IPv6 interfaces.

Enter the interface programming mode for each IPv6 interface and enable the multicast group FF02::9, and then activate RIPng globally using the IPv6 router rip name command.



16. Refer to the exhibit. The FTP server has an RFC 1918 private address. Users on the Internet need to connect to the FTP server on the Fao/o LAN of R1. Which three configurations must be completed on R1? (Choose three.)

dynamic NAT

NAT with overloading

6

***open port 20

***open port 21

open port 23

***NAT with port forwarding


17. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 network, and R2 is performing NAT for the 192.168.1.2/24 network. What would be valid destination IP address for Host A to put in its IP header when communicating with the web server?

10.1.1.1

***172.30.20.2

192.168.1.2

255.255.255.255



18. Refer to the exhibit. Which two addresses could be assigned to traffic leaving so as a result of the statement IP NAT pool Tampa 172.9.8.96.179.9.8.111 net mask 255.255.255.24.? (Choose two.)

10.0.0.125

179.9.8.95

***179.9.8.98

***179.9.8.101

179.9.8.112



19. Refer to the exhibit. IPv6 address 2006:1::1/64 eui-64 has been configured on the router FastEtherneto/o interface. Which statement accurately describes the EUI-64 identifier configuration?

It will randomly generated a 64 bit interface ID.

7

It will assign an address from the pool of IPv6 private addresses to the interface.

It will assign only the registry prefix of the IPv6 Global Unicast address to the interface.

***The configuration will derive the interface portion of the IPv6 address from the MAC address of the interface.


20. How many bits of an IPv6 address are used to identify the interface ID?

32

48

***64

128


21. Your organization is issued the IPv6 prefix of 2001:0000:130F::/48 by your service provider. With this prefix, how many bits are available for your organization to create subnetworks?

8

***16

80

128

CCNA 4 - Final Exam Answers (part 3)

1. Identify the factors that contribute to congestion on an Ethernet LAN. (Choose three.)
• improper placement of enterprise level servers
• addition of hosts to a physical segment

• replacement of hubs with workgroup switches
• increasing use of bandwidth intensive network applications
• migration to full-duplex Ethernet within the LAN


2. Which of the following are examples of TCP/IP application layer protocols? (Choose three.)
• a terminal emulation protocol that supports remote console connections with various network devices
• a protocol created by IBM that makes it easier for mainframes to connect to remote offices
• a protocol responsible for transporting electronic mail on TCP/IP networks and the Internet
• a protocol that controls the rate at which data is sent to another computer
• a protocol that exchanges network management information between a network device and a management console


3. Which of the following eliminates switching loops?
• hold-down timers
• poison reverse
• spanning tree protocol
• time to live
• split horizon protocol


4. The show cdp neighbors command is a very useful network troubleshooting tool. Using the output in the graphic, select the statements that are true. (Choose two.)
• CDP operates at the network layer of the OSI model.
• The output of this command displays information about directly connected Cisco devices only.
• The switch is attached to the SanJose1 FastEthernet0/21 interface.
• SanJose1 is running CDP version 12.0.
• SanJose1 has two fully operational, cdp-enabled Cisco switches directly connected to it.
• SanJose2 is a 2600 series router running several routed protocols


5. A network administrator can ping the Denver router, but gets a 'Password Required but None Set' message when trying to connect remotely via Telnet. Which command sequence must be applied to the Denver router to allow remote access?
• Router(config)# line console 0
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# login
Router(config-line)# password cisco

• Router(config)# line virtual terminal
Router(config-line)# enable login
Router(config-line)# password cisco
• Router(config)# line vty 0 4
Router(config-line)# enable secret
Router(config-line)# password cisco
Router(config)# enable secret cisco
Router(config)# enable cisco


6. Which of the following is associated with link-state routing protocols?
• low processor overhead
• poison reverse
• routing loops
• split horizon
• shortest-path first calculations


7. A router does not load its configuration after a power failure. After running the show startup-configuration command, the adminstrator finds that the original configuration is intact. What is the cause of this problem?
• The configuration register is set for 0x2100.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2101.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2102.
• The configuration register is set for 0x2142.
• Boot system commands are not configured.
• Flash memory is empty causing the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM
• Nederst på formularen


8. Which commands are used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose three.)
• show ip interface
• show ip route
• show processes
• show running-config
• show cdp neighbor
• show access-lists


9. Which of the following are required when creating a standard access control list? (Choose two.)
• destination address and wildcard mask
• source address and wildcard mask
• subnet mask and wildcard mask
• access list number between 100 and 199 or 2000 and 2699
• access list number between 1 and 99 or 1300 to 1999


10. Which of the following are keywords that can be used in an access control list to replace a dotted decimal wildcard mask? (Choose two.)
• most
• host
• all
• any
• some
• sum


11. Refer to the diagram. All ports on Switch A are in the Sales VLAN and all ports on Switch B are in the Accounting VLAN. How many broadcast domains and how many collision domains are shown? (Choose two).
• 3 collision domains
• 3 broadcast domains
• 5 broadcast domains
• 9 collision domains
• 10 collision domains
• 13 collision domains


12. Refer to the graphic. Using the most efficient IP addressing scheme and VLSM, which address can be configured on one of the serial interfaces?
• 192.168.16.63/27
• 192.168.16.158/27
• 192.168.16.192/27
• 192.168.16.113/30
• 192.168.16.145/30
• 192.168.16.193/30


13. What is the purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?
• prevents Layer 2 loops
• prevents routing loops on a router
• creates smaller collision domains
• creates smaller broadcast domains
• allows Cisco devices to exchange routing table updates


14. What is the purpose of a loopback address when using the OSPF routing protocol?
• activates the OSPF neighboring process
• ensures a persistent router ID for the OSPF process
• provides a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
• streamlines and speeds up the convergence process


15. Which statement is true regarding states of the IEEE 802.1d Spanning Tree Protocol?
• Ports are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
• Ports listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
• Ports must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
• It takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding


16. Which sequence of commands is used to configure a loopback address on a router?
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
Router1(config)# interface serial 0/0
• Router1(config-if)# loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
• Router1(config)# interface loopback 1
Router1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.255



17. Which routing protocols are classful and do not support VLSM? (Choose two.)
• EIGRP
• OSPF
• RIP v1
• RIP v2
• IGRP


18. Refer to the graphic. Two switches are connected together through a trunk port. SW2 displays the message shown. Which of the following will solve the duplex mismatch?
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# duplex full
• SW1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW1(config-if)# full-duplex
• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# duplex full

• SW2(config)# interface fastethernet 0/1
SW2(config-if)# full-duplex


19. Refer to the graphic. Two routers have been configured to use EIGRP. Packets are not being forwarded between the two routers. What could be the problem?
• EIGRP does not support VLSM.
• The routers were not configured to monitor neighbor adjacency changes.
• The default bandwidth was used on the routers.
• An incorrect IP address was configured on a router interface.


20. According to the the provided router output, which of the following statements is true regarding PPP operation?
• Only the link-establishment phase completed successfully.
• Only the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Neither the link-establishment phase nor the the network-layer phase completed successfully.
• Both the link-establishment and network-layer phase completed successfully


21. Frame Relay is configured over a point-to-point connection between two routers. The output of the show frame-relay pvc command indicates that the status of this PVC is inactive. Which of the following devices could be the source of the problem? (Choose two.)
• local router
• local Frame Relay switch
• remote router
• remote Frame Relay switch

• R3 has the following configuration:
• R3# show running-config
• --some output text omitted--
• interface serial0/0
• bandwidth 128
• ip address 192.168.11.2 255.255.255.0
• encapsulation frame-relay
• frame-relay map ip 192.168.11.2 30 broadcast


22. After the command R3# debug frame-relay packet is executed, a ping is issued from R3 to R1 but is unsuccessful. Based on the output of the debug command shown in the graphic and the router configuration, what might be problem?
• No clock rate assigned.
• There is an incorrect DLCI number in the map statement.
• An incorrect IP address exists in the map statement.
• The encapsulation command is missing the broadcast keyword


23. Which statements are true regarding the Frame Relay LMI? (Choose three.)
• The LMI provides a virtual circuit (VC) status mechanism.
• The LMI type must always be manually configured.
• The available LMI types are NI1, DMS100 and 5ESS.
• The LMI types supported by Cisco routers are CISCO and IETF.
• The LMI type configured on the router must match the one used on the Frame Relay switch.
• The LMI uses reserved DLCIs to exchange messages between the DTE and DCE


24. Which statement describes the process that occurs in Network Address Translation (NAT) overloading?
• Multiple private IP addresses are mapped to one public IP address.
• The number of usable addresses assigned to a company is divided into smaller manageable groups.
• A pool of IP addresses are mapped to one or more MAC addresses.
• The router acts as a DHCP server and assigns multiple public IP addresses for each private IP address configured


25. Which two statements are true about the committed information rate on a Frame Relay link? (Choose two.)
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must be less than the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs must equal the port speed.
• The sum of the CIRs for all PVCs can be greater than the port speed.
• The DE bit will be set on frames that are transmitted in excess of the CIR.

• Frames that are transmitted at greater than the CIR will be discarded at the source.
• It is impossible to transmit frames at a rate in excess of the CIR


26. Which of the following commands would be used to troubleshoot the processing of call control functions such as call setup, signaling, and termination?
• show interface bri0/0
• show isdn active
• debug isdn q921
• debug isdn q931
• debug ppp negotiation
• debug ppp authentication


27. Which of the following statements are true regarding PPP? (Choose three.)
• PPP can use synchronous and asynchronous physical media.
• PPP can only be used between two Cisco devices.
• PPP carries packets from several network layer protocols in LCPs.
• PPP uses LCPs to establish, configure, and test the data link connection.
• PPP uses LCPs to agree on format options such as authentication, compression, and error detection



28. A network administrator is evaluating authentication protocols for a PPP link. Which of the following reasons might lead to the selection of CHAP over PAP as the authentication protocol? (Choose three.)
• establishes identities with a two-way handshake
• uses a three-way authentication periodically during the session to reconfirm identities
• control by the remote host of the frequency and timing of login events
• transmits login information in encrypted format
• uses an unpredictable variable challenge value to prevent playback attacks

• makes authorized network administrator intervention a requirement to establish each session


29. Why are static routes often used with ISDN DDR?
• They are more stable than dynamic routing protocols.
• They are more accurate than dynamic routing protocols because they are put in by a network administrator.
• They are easier to modify when a faster technology is installed.
• They prevent the unnecessary activation of the link


30. Assuming that four bits have been borrowed to make subnets, identify the subnet network addresses. (Choose three.)
• 192.168.14.8
• 192.168.14.16
• 192.168.14.24
• 192.168.14.32
• 192.168.14.148
• 192.168.14.208


31. A switch can be configured for three different forwarding modes based on how much of a frame is received before the forwarding process begins. Each of the numbered arrows in the accompanying graphic signifies the point in a frame where a particular forwarding mode will begin. Which one of the following groups reflects the sequence of forwarding modes signified by the numbered arrows?
• 1) fast forward
• 2) fragment free
• 3) store-and-forward

• 1) store-and-forward
2) fragment free
3) fast forward
• 1) fragment free
2) fast forward
3) store-and-forward
• 1) fast forward
2) store-and-forward
3) fragment free


32. Which of the following commands will display a communication message on a router before the router prompt is shown?
• banner motd * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• message Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.
• banner * Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW. *
• hostname (Property of TLC. UNAUTHORIZED USERS WILL BE PROSECUTED TO THE FULL EXTENT OF THE LAW.)
• Øverst på formularen


33. A router needs to be added to OSPF area 0. Which commands should be used to enable OSPF on the router? (Choose two.)
• RouterA(config)# router ospf
• RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
• RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0


34. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands will configure router A for OSPF?
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63 area 0
network 192.168.10.192 0.0.0.3 area 0

• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
network 192.168.10.192 255.255.255.252
• router ospf 1
network 192.168.10.0 area 0


35. Which of the following protocols would exchange information between routers to share network addresses and their metrics?
• TCP
• RIP
• CSMA/CD
• Ethernet


36. Which ISDN device can be directly connected to a two-wire local loop in a North American city?
• a router with a serial interface
• a router with an S/T interface
• a router with a U interface
• an ISDN terminal adapter


37. The output of the show ip interfaces brief command indicates that Serial0 is up but the line protocol is down. Which of the following are possible causes for the line protocol being in the down state? (Choose two.)
• The clock rate is not set on the DTE.
• An incorrect default gateway is set on the router.
• A network is missing from the routing protocol configuration.
• The encapsulation on the Serial0 interface is incorrect.
• Keepalives are not being sent by the remote device



38. Which of the following is a characteristics of TCP? (Choose two.)
• data transport reliability
• best path determination
• establishing, maintaining, and terminating virtual circuits
• encapsulation of packets in a data frame with source and destination MAC addresses
• best-effort datagram delivery


39. Which statement is true regarding the command ip route 192.168.7.24 255.255.255.248 192.168.7.9? (Choose two.)
• A packet destined for host 192.168.7.30 will be forwarded to address 192.168.7.9.
• 192.168.7.9 is the destination network for this route.
• 192.168.7.24 is the next-hop router in this command.
• This command is issued from the interface configuration mode.
• This command is used to define a static route


40. Which of the following application layer protocols use TCP? (Choose three.)
• SMTP
• FTP

• SNMP
• HTTP
• TFTP
• DHCP


41. Which terms refer to Frame Relay congestion management mechanisms? (Choose three.)
• BECN
• DLCI
• DE
• FECN

• LMI
• Inverse ARP


42. Which of the following router commands will verify that a path exists to a destination network?
• Router# show ip interfaces brief
• Router# show ip route
• Router# show cdp neighbors
• Router# show running-config
• Router# show protocols


43. When EIGRP is configured on a router, which table of DUAL information is used to calculate the best route to each destination router?
• router table
• topology table
• DUAL table
• CAM table
• ARP table


44. Refer to the graphic. Routers A and B have EIGRP configured and automatic summarization has been disabled on both routers. Which of the following commands is used on router A to summarize the attached routes, and to which interface is this command applied? (Choose two)
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192
• ip area-range eigrp 1 192.168.10.80 255.255.255.224
• summary-address 192.168.10.80 0.0.0.31
• ip summary-address eigrp 1 192.168.10.64 0.0.0.63
• serial interface on router A
• serial interface on router B


45. A router with two LAN interfaces, two WAN interfaces, and two loopback interfaces configured is operating with OSPF as its routing protocol. What is used by the OSPF process to assign the router ID?
• the IP address of the interface configured with priority 0
• the OSPF area ID configured on the interface with the highest IP address
• the loopback with the highest IP address configured
• the highest IP address on the LAN interfaces
• the highest IP address configured on the WAN interfaces


46. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.56 255.255.255.224, on which subnetwork does this address reside?
• 172.0.0.0
• 172.16.134.0
• 172.16.134.32
• 172.16.134.48
• 172.16.134.47
• 172.16.134.63


47. Which commands show when the last IGRP routing update was received? (Choose two.)
• Router# show ip protocols
• Router# show version
• Router# show interfaces
• Router# show ip updates
• Router# show ip route


48. When using access control lists to filter traffic, which of the following is used to track multiple sessions occurring between hosts?
• IP addresses
• subnet masks
• port numbers
• routed protocols
• routing protocols
• interfaces


49. Given the IP address and subnet mask of 172.16.134.64 255.255.255.224, which of the following would describe this address?
• This is a useable host address.
• This is a broadcast address.
• This is a network address.
• This is not a valid address


50. The company network shown in the drawing has to be subnetted. The company has leased the Class C IP address of 200.1.2.0. Which of the following network addresses and masks would be appropriate for one of the subnetworks?
• 200.1.2.96 255.255.255.192
• 200.1.2.160 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.80 255.255.255.224
• 200.1.2.32 255.255.255.240

CCNA 4 - Final Exam Answers (part 2)

1. A network administrator is asked to design a system to allow simultaneous access to the Internet for 250 users. The ISP for this network can only supply five public IPs. What can be used to accomplish this task?
• routable translation
• dynamic translation
• static translation
• port address translation


2. The LAN attached to the Ethernet interface of the Raleigh router shown in the graphic is addressed with private IP addresses. If one public IP is assigned to the company, which commands could be used in a configuration that allows all devices with private IPs in this network to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• ip nat inside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat outside source list 1 interface serial0 overload
• ip nat inside serial0
• ip nat inside source list 1 pool Raleigh overload
• ip nat inside Raleigh overload
• ip inside nat source list 1 interface serial0 Raleigh


3. The command output shown in the graphic was taken from a Cisco 806 broadband router. Which kind of address translation is in effect on this router?
• static
• dynamic
• overload
• private
• public


4. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29


5. How will data be transmitted from the router to the ISP if the router has the two links shown in the graphic?
• Both links will transmit data at the same rate.
• 1544 bits can be transmitted simultaneously from the router over the T1 line.
• Both links will transmit bits one by one.
• The 56K link will transmit a maximum of 53 bits at the same time.


6. Which statements about DHCP are true? (Choose three.)
• DHCP uses TCP.
• DHCP uses UDP.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the server on port 68.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 67.
• DHCP sends messages to the client on port 68.



7. Which command would be used to exclude the IP address 192.168.24.5 from the DHCP address pool on a router?
• Router(dhcp-config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config-excluded)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# ip dhcp excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5
• Router(dhcp-config)# excluded-address 192.168.24.5

8. The WAN connection for a nationwide company with 250 offices must support constant connections to core layer services for file sharing, and occasional Internet access. Which combination of WAN technologies will meet these needs with minimum expense?
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ATM for file server access
• Frame Relay PVC for Internet access and ISDN for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and X.25 for file server access
• ISDN for Internet access and Frame Relay PVC for file server access


9. Which command would produce the output shown in the graphic?
• show ip dhcp server statistics
• show ip dhcp binding
• debug ip dhcp server events
• debug ip dhcp binding


10. Which of the following devices is used to establish the communications link between the customer equipment and the local loop for digital lines?
• terminal adapter
• modem
• CSU/DSU
• PBX switch
• ISDN switch
• Frame Relay Switch


11. Which of the following statements are true about Frame Relay? (Choose three.)
• Frame Relay operation is defined by a series of ISO standards.
• Frame Relay is a packet switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay only supports point-to-point connections.
• A router can be considered as data terminal equipment (DTE) in a frame relay system.
• Frame Relay is a cell switched, connection-oriented, wide area network service.
• Frame Relay networks use a subset of the HDLC protocol to carry information.


12. ITU-T Q.921 specifies the use of which protocol for sending control and signaling messages between the router and the ISDN switch?
• HDLC
• IPCP
• LAPB
• LAPD
• NCP
• SS7


13. A company needs a WAN connection that is capable of transferring voice, video, and data at a minimum data rate of 155 Mbps. Which WAN connection is the best choice?
• X.25
• DSL
• ATM
• ISDN BRI
• ISDN PRI


14. Which statement explains why basic DSL is an unpopular WAN connectivity choice for enterprise computer departments that support home users?
• DSL offers insufficient bandwidth to home users.
• DSL requires the installation of new cables, which is not always possible for home users.
• DSL dialup connection time is too slow for business use.
• DSL has limited geographical availability.


15. When planning simple WAN connections for a small company, which feature of the three layer hierarchical model makes it a good choice for the WAN topology.
• It provides for redundancy.
• It allows for easy WAN expansion in case of company growth.
• It is less expensive.
• It provides faster connection time.
• It provides less latency and jitter.


16. Which of the following terms describes a device that will put data on the local loop?
• DLCI
• CO
• DCE
• DTE
• PRI
• BRI


17. Which of the following are supported by a BRI interface on a router? (Choose two.)
• Two independent channels that can carry analog data with a bandwidth of 64 KHz.
• A single 128 Kbps digital bearer channel.
• Two multiplexed channels carrying digital data.
• A single 64 Kbps signaling channel.
• A multiplexed data channel that can only handle SS7 information.
• A 16 Kbps delta channel used for signaling purposes.


18. A network administrator has been asked to provide the network in the United States with an ISDN WAN link. The router available to provide the WAN connection is a non-modular Cisco router with two serial connections. What must be done to adapt one of the serial interfaces of this router for the ISDN connection?
• Nothing. The router is already suitable.
• Purchase a BRI WAN interface card to install in the router.
• Purchase a U interface to install in the router.
• Purchase a TA/NT1 device to install on the router.


19 (NEED ANSWERS!!!)Which of the following is a function of a DCE device?
• determines the next-hop address for a packet
• multiplexes signals from several sources
• adapts information for use on a service provider's network
• used to directly connect two DTEs to simulate a WAN network


20. Why would data frames be discarded in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• The frame contains an incorrect IP address.
• An error has been detected in computing the frame check sequence.
• There is not enough bandwidth dedicated for the data contained in the frame.
• Data is transmitted at a rate greater than the access speed.
• The frame contains an incorrect DLCI.


21. Which of the following are commonly used as Data Communications Equipment? (Choose two.)
• modem
• router
• CSU/DSU
• ISDN Switch
• Frame Relay Switch


22. Which of the following LCP options can be configured for PPP? (Choose three.)
• CHAP
• Stacker

• IPCP
• CDPCP
• Multilink


23. Which command will provide for CHAP authentication if the hostname on a challenging router is tampa with a password of florida?
• username tampa password florida
• username tampa florida
• hostname tampa password florida
• hostname tampa florida


24. Which of the following describes the PAP protocol? (Choose two.)
• sends unencrypted authentication passwords
• performs a three-way handshake
• allows repeated login attempts
• uses the remote router hostname to verify identity
• sends a random challenge throughout the session


25. Why was NAT created? (Choose two.)
• to create firewalls on routers
• to conserve IP addresses
• to translate domain names into IP addresses
• to map network addresses to the corresponding data link address
• to hide internal addresses from external devices


26. An ISDN router is configured for DDR as shown in the graphic to provide Internet connectivity for the company. Immediately after a user in the company attempts opens a web browser to connect to the Internet, another user in the company tries to download a file using FTP. What will happen? (Choose two.)
• The user that opened the browser will connect to the Internet because the DDR link will consider this traffic interesting.
• The Internet user will be disconnected because the FTP data will cause the DDR link to shut down.
• The DDR link will allow the FTP traffic because it is interesting.
• The DDR link will not allow the FTP traffic because it is not interesting.
• The FTP connection will fail because the DDR link is already in use for the Internet connection.
• The FTP connection will succeed because the web user already opened the DDR link.


27. Which command configures the SPID on the first B channel of an ISDN interface?
• Router(config)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid0 spid-number [ldn]
• Router(config-if)# isdn spid1 spid-number [ldn]


28. What does the command debug isdn q921 display?
• exchange of call setup and teardown messages
• PAP and CHAP authentication traffic
• Layer 2 messages on the D channel
• protocol errors and statistics
• Layer 2 messages on the B channel


29. When PPP authentication is enabled, which of the following may be checked before establishing a PPP link between two devices? (Choose two.)
• the enable password on the remote device
• the ip host configuration on the remote device
• the security server database for the username and password of the remote device
• the hostname and enable password on the local device
• the local database for the username and password of the remote device


30. How many separate B channel circuits can be provisioned on a PRI interface that uses a T1 line for connectivity?
• 2
• 16
• 23
• 24
• 30
• 128


31. Which operating systems support multiuser capability? (Choose three.)
• Linux
• Windows 98
• Windows ME
• Windows XP
• Windows 2000



32. What is placed in the address field of a frame that will travel from the DC office of ABC company to the Orlando office?
• MAC address of the Orlando router
• MAC address of the DC router
• 192.168.1.25
• 192.168.1.26
• DLCI 100
• DLCI 200


33. What does a DLCI of 0 indicate about a frame? (Choose two.)
• This is the first data frame sent by the router.
• This is a management frame.
• The encapsulation type is Cisco.
• The encapsulation type is IETF.
• The LMI type is Ansi or q933a.
• The LMI type is Cisco.


34. Which of the following protocols can be used to encapsulate data traffic sent from a router BRI interface? (Choose two.)
• Link Access Protocol - Data
• High-Level Data Link Control
• Logical Link Control
• Serial Data Link Control
• Point to Point protocol
• Binary Synchronous Control protocol


35. An administrator consoled into the Jelly router needs to telnet to the Butter router. What DLCI will the Jelly router place in the frame to perform this operation?
• 110
• 115
• 220
• 225


36. Which commands can be used to identify which DLCIs are active? (Choose two.)
• show frame-relay map
• show frame-relay lmi
• show frame-relay pvc
• show frame-relay interface
• show interfaces
• show ip route


37. A technician is testing the functionality of a recently installed router. The technician is unable to ping the serial interface of a remote router. The technician executes the show interface serial0/0 command on the local router and sees the following line in the output:
Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is down
What are possible causes for this command output? (Choose three.)
• remote CSU/DSU failure
• serial cable missing
• interface shutdown
• keepalives not being sent
• clocking signal missing



38. A router needs to forward a message received from a host. How does the router identify the correct VC to forward the message? (Choose two.)
• The router forwards the frame to all ports in the network and learns the address from the reply frame.
• The destination host IP address is embedded in the DLCI.
• The router searches Inverse ARP tables for maps of DLCIs to IP addresses.
• A table of static mappings can be searched.

• The router broadcasts a request for the required IP address.


39. Which of the following statements regarding point-to-point subinterfaces are true? (Choose two.)
• A point-to-point subinterface on one router must be connected to a similar subinterface on a remote router.
• Each point-to-point subinterface connection is configured with its own subnet.
• The DLCIs configured on the remote and local routers must be the same for the PVC.
• LMI frames are not transmitted through a subinterface.
• Routing updates in point-to-point networks are not subject to the split-horizon rule.


40. Which of the following can be concluded from the router output displayed in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• The local DLCI number of this PVC is 100.
• The interface has been configured for subinterfaces and this map is for subinterface 0.
• Inverse ARP has determined the remote ip address as 10.140.1.1.
• The LMI type is ANSI (0x64).
• There is currently no congestion on the link.


41. Which of the following are functions of the Local Management Interface used in Frame Relay networks? (Choose three.)
• exchange information about the status of virtual circuits
• map DLCIs to network addresses
• provide flow control
• provide error notification
• provide congestion notification
• send keepalive packets to verify operation of the PVC


42. Which of the following describe functions of the Point-to-Point protocol with regards to the OSI model? (Choose three.)
• PPP uses Layer 3 of the OSI model to establish and maintain a session between devices.
• PPP operates at all layers of the OSI model.
• PPP uses the data link layer to configure such options as error detection and compression.
• PPP provides a mechanism to multiplex several network layer protocols.

• PPP uses Network Control Protocols (NCP) to test and maintain connectivity between devices.
• PPP can be configured on both synchronous and asynchronous serial interfaces.


43. Which of the following describes the CHAP protocol? (Choose three.)
• exchanges a random challenge number during the session to verfiy identity
• sends authentication password to verify identity
• prevents transmission of login information in plain text
• disconnects the PPP session if authentication fails

• initiates a two-way handshake


44. Which of the following switching types will allow the communication devices in the provider's network to be shared and only allocated to an individual subscriber during data transfer?
• circuit-switched
• packet-switched
• frame-switched
• dedicated-switched lines
• lease-switched


45. How does Frame Relay technology process frames that contain errors? (Choose two.)
• Frame Relay services depend on the upper layer protocols to handle error recovery.
• It requires the receiving device to request that the sender retransmit erroneous frames.
• FECN, BECN, and DE bits are set in the frames to minimize errors.
• The receiving device drops any frames that contain errors without notifying the sender.
• The frame relay switch notifies the sender that errors were detected.


46. Which of the following describes the WAN devices and cabling shown in the graphic? (Choose two.)
• A null-modem cable is used between RouterD and DeviceC for connectivity.
• A DB-25 or DB-9 serial cable is connected to interface S0/0 of RouterA.
• DeviceB and DeviceC are DCE devices.
• The same encoding scheme must be used by DeviceB and DeviceC.

• A synchronous serial connection exists between DeviceB and DeviceC.

CCNA 4 - Final Exam Answers (part 1)

1. Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
• A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop.
• A modem terminates a digital local loop.
• A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop.
• A modem terminates an analog local loop.
• A router is commonly considered a DTE device.

• A router is commonly considered a DCE device.


2. What value in the address field of a Frame Relay header identifies the destination of the frame?
• CIR
• DE
• DLCI
• ISDN
• FRAD
• PVC


3. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue explains why the link is unable to establish a PPP session?
• The IP addresses must be on different subnets.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.


4. The output of the show interfaces serial 0/0 command for a frame-relay connection indicates that the serial line is up but the line protocol is down. What are possible causes for this? (Choose two.)
• There is an LMI-type mismatch between the Frame Relay switch and the router.
• There is no clock present on the serial interface.
• The interface is shut down.
• RARP is not functioning on the router.
• The cable is disconnected.


5. Which statements are correct about the point in the network where the responsibility of the service provider ends? (Choose three.)
• The International point is on the customer side of the network terminating unit(NTU).
• The United States point is at the interface of the customer-provided equipment and the local loop.

• The responsibility for this point is controlled by IANA.
• The point is called the demarcation point.
• The point is typically located at the service provider's central office.
• The point is located between the customer's local area networks.


6. While prototyping an internetwork in the corporate lab, a network administrator is testing a serial link between serial 0/0 interfaces on two routers. The labels on the serial cable ends have been damaged and are unreadable. What command can be issued to determine which router is connected to the DCE cable end?
• show interfaces serial 0/0
• show version
• show controllers serial 0/0
• show protocols serial 0/0
• show status serial 0/0


7. A network technician determines DHCP clients are not working properly. The clients are receiving IP configuration information from a DHCP server configured on the router but cannot access the Internet. From the output in the graphic, what is the most likely problem?
• The DHCP server service is not enabled.
• The inside interface for DCHP is not defined.
• The DHCP pool is not bound to the interface.
• The pool does not have a default router defined for the clients.
• All the host addresses have been excluded from the DHCP pool.


8. A technician enters the interface serial 0/0.1 multipoint command when configuring a router. What effect will the multipoint keyword have in this configuration? (Choose two.)
• Split-horizon issues will need to be resolved for this network if RIP is the routing protocol.
• A subinterface will be defined for each PVC.
• All the participating interfaces of remote routers will be configured in the same subnet.
• A single DLCI will be used to define all the PVCs to the remote routers.
• An IP address will need to be configured on the main interface.


9. When configuring a Frame Relay connection, when should a static Frame Relay map be used? (Choose two.)
• when the remote router is a non-Cisco router
• when the remote router does not support Inverse ARP
• when the local router is using IOS Release 11.1 or earlier
• when broadcast traffic and multicast traffic over the PVC must be controlled
• when globally significant rather than locally significant DLCIs are being used


10. Which router command would be used to associate a Layer 2 address with the corresponding Layer 3 address in the internetwork in the diagram?
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay pvc 100 192.168.15.2
• RouterA(config-if)#dialer-map ip 192.168.15.1 100 broadcast
• RouterA(config-if)#frame-relay map ip 192.168.15.2 100 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 101 serial 0 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#frame-relay dlci 101 192.168.15.1 broadcast
• RouterA (config-if)#dialer-map 192.168.15.1 inverse-arp broadcast


11. Which of the following ISDN protocols is responsible for call setup and call teardown?
• ITU-T Q.921
• ITU-T Q.931
• ITU-T I.430
• ITU-T I.431


12. What are two ways to resolve split-horizon issues in a Frame Relay network? (Choose two.)
• create a full-mesh topology
• disable Inverse ARP
• use point-to-point subinterfaces
• use multipoint subinterfaces
• remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command


13. What is the purpose of the command marked with an arrow shown in the partial configuration output of a Cisco 806 broadband router?
• defines which addresses are allowed out of the router
• defines which addresses are allowed into the router
• defines which addresses can be translated
• defines which addresses are assigned to a NAT pool


14. A system administrator is unable to ping the Serial0/0 interface of RouterB from RouterA. During the troubleshooting process, the following facts are established:
- IP addressing and subnet masks are correct.
- RouterA is a Cisco router and RouterB is a router from another vendor.
- RouterA is configured with the default encapsulation.
- The serial interfaces on both routers are up.
- The protocol is down on the serial interfaces of both routers.
What should the administrator do to solve the problem?
• Add a clock rate on RouterA.
• Enable the serial interface on RouterB.
• Change the encapsulation on both routers to PPP.
• Connect the serial cable to the correct interface on RouterB.
• Use the correct serial cable to attach the CSU/DSU to RouterB.


15. An ISDN circuit from a branch office is remaining connected to the regional office. A network administrator determines a user has initiated a continuous ping from a desktop computer to the regional office. Which configuration change would allow the ISDN circuit to disconnect during any attempts to ping, while otherwise functioning properly?
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles
• remove the dialer list statement from the configuration
• change the dialer list to exclude ICMP as interesting
• disable inverse ARP


16. Below is a list of DDR steps. Which of the following identifies the proper order of DDR?
1 - dial number is looked up
2 - interesting traffic triggers DDR
3 - route to destination is determined
4 - call is made
• 1,2,3,4
• 1,3,2,4
• 2,3,1,4
• 2,1,3,4
• 3,2,1,4
• 3,1,2,4


17. Which protocol should be chosen to support WAN connectivity in a multi-vendor system and provide strong security through authentication?
• NAT with DHCP
• Frame Relay
• HDLC with encryption
• HDLC with CHAP
• PPP with PAP
• PPP with CHAP


18. Which of the following are valid steps for a basic ISDN BRI configuration? (Choose two.)
• create subinterfaces
• define the LMI type
• set the SPIDs if required by the ISDN switch
• set the interface DLCI
• set the switch type
• specify the encapsulation as either Cisco or IETF


19. A branch office reports excessive connect time charges for an ISDN circuit used to connect to the regional office. Upon investigation of this issue, it is discovered that when an ISDN connection is initiated to the regional office it remains connected for an excessive amount of time. Which of the following configuration changes could be made to DDR on the router to reduce these connect time charges?
• use PPP multilink
• lower idle timer setting
• use CHAP authentication
• change DDR from legacy to dialer profiles


20. A network administrator is having difficulty in establishing a serial link between a Cisco router and a router from another vendor. Both routers are configured for HDLC encapsulation. Which statements are true regarding this configuration? (Choose two.)
• The Cisco HDLC frame uses a proprietary "Type" field that may not be compatible with equipment of other vendors.
• HDLC requires a clock rate to be configured on the routers at both ends of the serial link.
• PPP encapsulation is recommended for serial links between equipment from multiple vendors.
• Usernames must be configured at both ends of the HDLC serial link.
• The HDLC vendor type must be enabled on the Cisco router.
• There is a mismatch in the HDLC authentication password configurations.


21. Given the partial router configuration in the graphic, why does the workstation with the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 fail to access the Internet? (Choose two.)
• The NAT inside interfaces are not configured properly.
• The NAT outside interface is not configured properly.
• The router is not properly configured to use the access control list for NAT.
• The NAT pool is not properly configured to use routable outside addresses.
• The access control list does not include the IP address 192.168.1.153/28 to access the Internet.


22. The serial PPP link between the Left and Right routers is configured as shown in the diagram. Which configuration issue will prevent IP traffic from crossing this link?
• The passwords must be different for the CHAP authentication.
• The usernames are misconfigured.
• The clock rate must be 56000.
• The clock rate is configured on the wrong end of the link.
• The IP addresses must be on the same subnet.
• Interface serial 0/0 on Left must connect to interface serial 0/1 on Right.


23. What causes a DDR call to be placed?
• dial string
• DLCI
• idle time out
• interesting traffic
• PVC


24. Which two layers of the OSI model are described by WAN standards?
• Application Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Physical Layer
• Data Link Layer, Transport Layer
• Physical Layer, Network Layer


25. A technician is testing RouterA in the graphic. What is the condition of the circuit?
• The routers are configured for different encapsulations.
• The clock rate is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit from WAN provider has failed.
• Authentication is not properly configured on the routers.
• The circuit is functioning properly.


26. A network administrator must provide WAN connectivity between a central office and three remote sites: Orlando, Atlanta, and Phoenix. The Orlando and Atlanta remote offices receive sales orders and transmit shipping confirmations to the Central office consistently throughout the day. The Phoenix remote office consists of one salesperson traveling through the southwest territory. The salesperson occasionally needs to connect to the Central office for e-mail access. How should the network administrator connect the remote sites to the Central office? (Choose two.)
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with Frame Relay connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with ISDN connections.
• Connect to the Atlanta and Orlando remote offices with POTS dial-up connections.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a Frame Relay connection.
• Connect to the Phoenix remote office with a POTS dial-up connection.


27. When a Frame Relay switch detects an excessive buildup of frames in its queue, which of the following may occur? (Choose two.)
• Frames with the DE bit set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames with the FECN and BECN bits set are dropped from the switch queue.
• Frames in excess of the CIR are not accepted by the switch.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link.
• The switch sets the FECN bit on all frames it receives on the congested link and sets the BECN bit on all frames it places on the congested link.


28. A system administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity issue between two routers in a new installation. The administrator enters the debug ppp authentication command on the WHSE router. The graphic shows a part of the output received. From this output, what is the most likely cause of this connectivity issue?
• There is not a route to the remote router.
• The ISDN circuit on the remote router has failed.
• The username/password was not properly configured on the WHSE router.
• The remote router has a different authentication protocol configured.


29. What does the output of the show frame-relay map command shown below represent? (Choose two.)
• Serial 0 (up): ip 172.30.151.4 dlci 122, dynamic, broadcast, status defined, active
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the remote router.
• 172.30.151.4 represents the IP address of the local serial interface.
• DLCI 122 represents the interface of the remote router.
• broadcast indicates that a dynamic routing protocol such as RIP v1 can send packets across this PVC.
• dynamic indicates that a dynamic routing protocol is enabled for this connection.
• active indicates that the ARP process is working.


30. What does the status inactive indicate in the output of the show frame-relay pvc command?
• The DLCI is programmed in the switch but is not usable.
• The DLCI was formerly programmed in the switch but is no longer there.
• The DLCI is usable but has little activity.
• The DLCI has been renamed for that PVC.


31. Which of the following IP addresses are defined by RFC 1918 as private addresses? (Choose three.)
• 192.168.146.0/22
• 172.10.25.0/16
• 172.31.0.0/16
• 20.0.0.0/8
• 10.172.92.8/29


32. After configuring a dialup ISDN circuit, a network associate begins testing the dialup connection. When attempting to ping a host on the remote network, the local router does not attempt to dial the remote access server. Which of the following are possible errors in this configuration? (Choose three.)
• PPP authentication is not properly configured.
• No dialer map is configured.
• The ISDN circuit connected to the remote access server is busy.
• No interesting traffic is defined.
• No route is determined to the remote network.
• A wrong number is configured in the dial string.


33. Two routers are connected through a Frame Relay, point-to-point PVC. The remote router is from a vendor other than Cisco. Which interface command is required to configure the link between the Cisco router and the other router?
• frame-relay pvc multipoint
• frame-relay pvc point-to-point
• encapsulation frame-relay cisco
• encapsulation frame-relay ietf
• frame-relay lmi-type ansi


34. Which circuit-switched WAN technology is often used to provide a backup for a leased line and additional capacity during peak usage times?
• X.25
• DSL
• ISDN
• cable modem


35. After the ISDN BRI interface is configured, which command can be used to verify that the router is communicating correctly with the ISDN switch?
• show dialer
• show isdn status
• show interfaces bri0/0:1
• show interfaces serial0/0.1


36. A system administrator needs to configure the regional office with ISDN for DDR connections to three remote sites. Each remote site requires different IP subnets, different encapsulations, and different authentication methods. The sites will not be connected at the same time. The company would like to accomplish this in the most cost effective manner. What method can the system administrator use to accomplish this task using the fewest B channels?
• Install and configure a PRI.
• Install and configure a BRI interface with separate SPIDs for each remote site.
• Install and configure a BRI with multiple switch types in global configuration.
• Install and configure a BRI using dialer profiles.
• Install and configure a separate BRI for each remote site.


37. A system administrator must provide Internet connectivity for ten hosts in a small remote office. The ISP has assigned two public IP addresses to this remote office. How can the system administrator configure the router to provide Internet access to all ten users at the same time?
• Configure static NAT for all ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT for ten users.
• Configure dynamic NAT with PAT.
• Configure DHCP and static NAT.
• What the administrator wants to do cannot be done.


38. Which of the following are characteristics of Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
• circuit-switched
• connection oriented
• OSI Layer 3
• packet-switched
• reliable


39. Which of the following is the order for the three phases of establishing a PPP serial link with authentication?
• authentication, link-establishment, network layer protocols
• authentication, network layer protocols, link-establishment
• network layer protocols, link-establishment, authentication
• network layer protocols, authentication, link-establishment
• link-establishment, authentication, network layer protocols
• link-establishment, network layer protocols, authentication

CCNA 4 Module 9 Exploration


1
Upon completion of a proposal, a network design team must sell their ideas to two key stakeholders. Who are these two stakeholders? (Choose two.)

Customers***
licensing boards
cabling contractors***
internal management
project implementation team



2
NetworkingCompany completes the installation of a network upgrade for a retail customer. All of the onsite tests complete successfully and the customer IT staff approves the results of the tests. The manager of the retail store contacts NetworkingCompany to inform the company that the store will not pay for the upgrade until a recently purchased software package is installed and tested on the network. Which two items that are contained in the proposal can the account manager refer to when discussing this issue with the store manager? (Choose two.)

the project scope***
the bill-of-material
the project timeline***
the terms and conditions
the business goals of the customer
the evaluation of the current network



3
Which proposal section describes the intended routing protocol, security mechanisms, and addressing for the planned network?
logical design***
physical design
executive summary
implementation plan
network requirements



4
In order to finalize a project proposal, an account manager of a networking company creates the terms and conditions section. What are two clauses that should be included in this section? (Choose two.)
cost summary***
installation steps
change order procedures***
problem resolution process
maintenance contract quotation



5
A company informs the account manager that the installation of a new edge router at the customer remote branch location cannot be done at the scheduled time because of a large order that the branch office needs to complete. As a result, the end date of the project must be adjusted to accommodate the additional time. What is the action should the account manager take?
Cancel the order for the new edge router.
Work with designer to redesign the branch network.
Instruct the technician to complete the install of the router at on the date in the contract.
Adjust the timeline documentation to show the company how the delay will affect the project completion date.***



6
Which statement describes a phased installation into an existing network?
A phased installation generally takes less time and expense than a green-field installation.
A phased installation is not suitable for large, multi-site network installations or upgrades.
A phased installation requires detailed planning in order to avoid disruption of user services.***
A phased installation involves building an entire replacement network and migrating users over to it.



7
The NetworkingCompany team is tasked to prepare an implementation schedule for a customer. It is determined that the new firewalls and wireless controllers that are specified in the design cannot be delivered and installed within the agreed upon time frame. The NetworkingCompany informs the customer of the problem. What two options can the NetworkingCompany team take to ensure the success of the project? (Choose two.)

plan to add additional staff and resources to shorten the installation time after the new equipment is delivered***

eliminate redundancy in the design to reduce the amount of equipment that is needed

renegotiate a new time frame with the customer to accommodate the delay***

delay the installation of the security devices and controllers until a later time

redesign the network to use only readily available equipment and software



8
A network installation team is assigned to replace all core switches in an existing data center. No other upgrades are planned. Which kind of installation is this?
a new installation
a fork-lift installation
a phased installation***
a green field installation



9
What two items are typically included in the executive summary of a proposal? (Choose two.)
project scope summary***
high-level implementation plan
quotes for all needed equipment
technical requirements for the design
emphasis on the benefits that meet the goals of the customer***



10
Included in a Bill of Materials (BOM) for a SOHO wired implementation is a Cisco 2811 router, Catalyst 2560 switch, four PCs, three laptops, and a networked printer. Wireless LAN capability will be implemented on this network. Which two equipment types must be added to the BOM to implement this request? (Choose two.)
DNS server
LAN switch ***
wireless NICs
DHCP server
wireless access points***



11
An upgraded version of the Cisco IOS has been purchased. However, the CD arrived damaged. How will this loss be covered?
a hardware warranty
a software warranty
the Cisco SMARTnet Service***
an additional service contract



12
The operation of a new branch location network is delayed because a VPN cannot be configured and established between the branch location and the main office. It is determined that the router at the main office does not have enough memory and does not have the correct Cisco IOS version image to support the VPN features. To prevent this delay, this problem should have been identified and corrected during which part of the design project?

the preparation of the business case
the prioritizing of the technical goals
the characterization of the existing network***

the implementation of the approved design



13
AAA Financial Services Company is performing implementation planning for a core switch upgrade. The company has 200 financial software programmers that work billable hours during the week. They have critical, scheduled money transfer transmissions that occur at hourly intervals every night. There are two, two-hour long IT maintenance windows scheduled for software upgrades, one on Saturday and one on Sunday. The bank advertises online banking as available 24 hours on business days and 21 hours on the weekends. However, a network upgrade that is necessary to replace some switches is expected to take four hours. Because of rack constraints, this time includes three hours to remove the old switches before the new switches can be installed and one hour to test the logical configuration. How should the implementation scheduling be handled?

Defer the software upgrades. Use the Saturday window to perform the hardware installation. Use the Sunday window to perform the logical testing.

Coordinate and publish a separate four-hour downtime during Friday to perform the complete switch installation and testing process. Use the Saturday and Sunday windows to correct any outage problems after the Friday window.

Coordinate and publish two, four-hour downtimes incorporating the published Saturday and Sunday windows. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. Use the Sunday window as a fallback scheduling period if there are problems necessitating backing out of the Saturday window.

Coordinate and publish an eight-hour downtime incorporating the Saturday window. This will allow four hours for installation and logical testing, one hour for troubleshooting and decision, and three hours to roll back to the previous configuration if the new switching cannot pass the logical testing. Defer any software upgrades until the new network is proven to be working correctly with the old software. ****



14
A customer has just taken delivery of a Cisco 2811 router and Catalyst 3560 switch. Included with the purchase is the SMARTnet Service. Which two resources are included with SMARTnet Service? (Choose two.)

signature file updates
technical support from TAC***
maintenance releases for OS
software application major releases***
software application maintenance and minor releases



15
What service is provided Cisco standard warranty?

software application maintenance
replacement of defected hardware***
next business day delivery of replacement parts
access to the Cisco Technical Assistance Center (TAC) 24 hours a day, 7 days a week



16
What are two important guidelines when creating a slide presentation for a meeting with a customer? (Choose two.)

Use all capital letters on words and phrases when possible for added emphasis.
Provide varied background graphics to enhance viewer interest.
Use contrasting colors for background and text to aid visibility.***
Change fonts frequently to denote differences in subject matter.
Use bulleted text to lead the discussion.****



17
Which two statements describe factors that influence the layout of a proposal? (Choose two.)

Proposal layouts are required to use sans serif typefaces.
A specific proposal layout is followed when one is specified in the RFP. ***
A designer chooses the layout if a written RFP does not specify an outline.***
The software that is used to create the proposal dictates the proposal layouts.
Proposal layouts are required to use a format that is designed by the network engineer.



18
Which occurrence would indicate a failure of the design phase?
The incorrect model switches were ordered.
There is no customer signoff for task completion.
New requirements are identified after implementation begins.
The new network capacity is inadequate to support required traffic.***



19
Which two items will a systems engineer include in an implementation plan? (Choose two.)

references to design documents
the business goals of the customer***
diagrams of the existing traffic flows***
the steps to install and test the network
cost of each network device and component



20
A Cisco 1841 router has been purchased without an agreement for SMARTnet Service. What two items are guaranteed under the standard warranty? (Choose two.)

access to TAC
replacement of defective physical media***
advanced replacement of hardware parts
access to a renewable standard warranty contract
under normal use, replacement of defective hardware***

CCNA 4 Module 8 Exploration

1. Which two pieces of information are typically found on a logical network diagram? (Choose two.)
• cable types
• connector types
• interface identifiers
• DLCI for virtual circuits

• operating system versions


2. Excessive broadcasts are generally a symptom of a problem at which layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport


3. What is one example of a physical layer problem?
• incorrect encapsulation
• incorrect STP configuration
• incorrect ARP mapping
• incorrect clock rate


4. Which two components should be taken into consideration when establishing a network baseline? (Choose two.)
• information about the network design
• IP addressing allocation on the network
• requirements about the service provider setup
• requirements for access control lists to regulate traffic
• expected performance under normal operating conditions


5.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps should be taken during the process of creating network documentation? (Choose two.)
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the Campus network only.
• Record the information about the devices discovered in the entire network, including the remote locations.
• Transfer any information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.

• Transfer only the Layer 2 and Layer 3 information about the devices from the network configuration table that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.
• Transfer the recorded information about the devices from the network configuration table gathered during peak network utilization that corresponds to a component of the topology diagram.


6. Which two statements are true concerning logical networking models? (Choose two.)
• TCP/IP splits the lowest layer of the OSI model into two separate layers.
• The top layer of the TCP/IP model combines the functions of the top three OSI layers.
• Troubleshooting with the TCP/IP model requires different techniques than with the OSI model.
• The network access layer is responsible for exchanging packets between devices on a TCP/IP network.
• The Internet layer provides communication between applications, such as FTP, HTTP, and SMTP on separate hosts.
• The TCP/IP network access layer corresponds to the OSI physical and data link layers.


7. Clients across the company are reporting poor performance across all corporate applications running in the data center. Internet access and applications running across the corporate WAN are performing normally. The network administrator observes a continual broadcast of random meaningless traffic (jabber) on the application server LAN in the data center on a protocol analyzer. How should the administrator start troubleshooting?
• The jabber in the data center indicates a local physical layer problem. Use the protocol analyzer to determine the source of the jabber, and then check for a recent NIC driver update or bad cabling.
• Because all clients are experiencing application problems, the administrator should use a top-down approach with the
• application servers in the data center.
• The scope of the problem indicates a likely routing or spanning-tree problem. Begin by checking routing tables, and follow up using appropriate STP show commands to find a loop if routing is working normally.
• Poll the staff to determine if any recent changes have been made. Back out all the changes one by one until the error condition is fixed.


8. Which troubleshooting approach is suggested for dealing with a complex problem that is suspected of being caused by faulty network cabling?
• bottom up
• top down
• divide and conquer
• middle out


9. A technician has been asked to make several changes to the configuration and topology of a network and then determine the outcome of the changes. What tool can be used to determine the overall effect caused by the changes?
• baselining tool
• knowledge base
• protocol analyzer
• cable tester


10. A technician has been asked to troubleshoot an existing switched network but is unable to locate documentation for the VLAN configuration. Which troubleshooting tool allows the technician to map and discover VLAN and port assignments?
• cable analyzer
• network analyzer
• protocol analyzer
• knowledge base


11.

Refer to the exhibit. Users on the Internal LAN are unable to connect to the www server. The network administrator pings the server and verifies that NAT is functioning correctly. Which OSI layer should the administrator begin to troubleshoot next?
• physical
• data link
• network
• application


12. When gathering symptoms for troubleshooting a network problem, which step could result in getting an external administrator involved in the process?
• narrowing the scope
• gathering symptoms from suspect devices
• analyzing existing symptoms
• determining ownership


13.

Refer to the exhibit. Which three pieces of information can be determined by analyzing the output shown? (Choose three.)
• A carrier detect signal is present.
• Keepalives are being received successfully.

• Default encapsulation is used on this serial link.
• Packets passing this interface cannot exceed 1 KB in size.
• The reliability of this link is very low.
• The LCP negotiation phase is complete.


14.

Refer to the exhibit. Users at Branch B are reporting trouble accessing a corporate website running on a server that is located at HQ. HQ and Branch A users can access the website. R3 is able to ping 10.10.10.1 successfully but not 10.10.10.2. The users at Branch B can access servers at Branch A. Which two statements are true aboutthe troubleshooting efforts? (Choose two.)
• The web server should be tested for an application layer problem.
• Frame Relay at R3 and R2 should be tested to narrow the scope of the problem.
• The fact that users at Branch A are working normally proves that there is no problem at R2.
• An ACL entry error could cause the failure at Layer 4 in either R3 or R2.
• The successful ping from R3 to R1 proves that the WAN is functioning normally. Therefore, the problem has to be in the upper
• layers.


15. Users are complaining of very long wait times to access resources on the network. The show interface command reveals collision counts far above the network baseline. At which OSI layer should the administrator begin troubleshooting?
• application
• transport
• network
• data link
• physical


16. Encapsulation errors from mismatched WAN protocols on a serial link between two routers indicate a problem at which OSI layer?
• physical
• data link
• network
• transport


17. What combination of IP address and wildcard mask should be used to specify only the last 8 addresses in the subnet 192.168.3.32/28?
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.32 0.0.0.15
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.7
• 192.168.3.40 0.0.0.15


18. A network administrator has received complaints that users on a local LAN can retrieve e-mail from a remote e-mail server but are unable to open web pages on the same server. Services at which two layers of the OSI model should be investigated during the troubleshooting process? (Choose two.)
• physical layer
• data link layer
• network layer
• transport layer
• application layer



19. Information about which OSI layers of connected Cisco devices can be verified with the show cdp neighbors command?
• All layers
• Layer 1, Layer 2, and Layer 3
• Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3, and Layer 4
• Layer 6 and Layer 7


20. Which three approaches should be used when attempting to gather data from users for troubleshooting? (Choose three.)
• Determine fault.
• Get to know the user to build trust.
• Obtain information by asking simple pertinent questions.
• Impress the user with use of technical language and skills.
• Determine if the problem is related to time or a specific event.
• Determine if the user can re-create the problem or events leading to the problem.